5.9 Demonstrate that the Lorentz distribution as given in equation (5.38) is correctly normalized so that
\int_0^(\infty ) \phi (v)dv=1
\phi (v)dv=(((\gamma _(n))/(4)\pi ))/((v-v_(0))^(2)+((\gamma _(n))/(4)\pi )^(2))(dv)/(\pi )
(5.38)