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(Solved): Let g be the inverse of a one-to-one function f. Prove that if f and g are di ...
???????
Let
g
be the inverse of a one-to-one function
f
. Prove that if
f
and
g
are differentiable then
g
?
(
x
)
f
?
(
g
(
x
))
=
1
.
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