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(Solved): need help with this question A woman with \( \mathrm{ABO} \) blood type \( \mathrm{A} \) marri ...
need help with this question
A woman with \( \mathrm{ABO} \) blood type \( \mathrm{A} \) marries a man who is type \( \mathrm{AB} \). They have a child who is type \( \mathrm{O} \). There is no evidence that the O-type child is the product of an extramarital affair and standard genetic markers indicate that the husband has as \( 99 \% \) probability of being the father. What is the best explanation for this? A) The mother's ABO genotype is \( \mu 1 \). B) The father's sperm cells lost the capacity to synthesize the ollgosaccharide known as antigen B. C) The child displays the Bombay phenotype, resulting from a mutation in a fucosyl transferase (fut1) gene. D) All of the above E) None of the above
solution-d) All of the correct. Explanation- a) iAi is the only possible genotype of O blood mother to get O blood group child . b) if The lather's sperm cells lost the capacity to synthesize the oligosaccharide known as antigen B then genotype of fa